Best Response

Assuming stock price and equity value are the same for both: Company A has weaker margins (gross, operating) and therefore lower EBIT, or a higher net debt balance, preferred securities outstanding, noncontrolling interests, etc or they have lower D&A expenses.

Company B has a weaker net margin; higher net interest expense (higher cost of debt) and therefore lower net income

There are a bunch of moving parts but I think these are some possible explanations

 

should B have a higher depreciation and/or interest expense, which makes its earnings smaller (the smaller the value of denominator is, the higher the value of the multiple is)? 

 

I agree with BBwayne- think capital structure- is P/E neutral? What changes this multiple? Now ask yourself the same question for EV/EBITDA? I have a similar question for you once you wrap your head around this one. If CO A and CO B have the same net income, but A is levered and B is not which one has a higher valuation? Why?

 

I think it depends on the level of debt you take on, up to a certain point, taking on more debt will give you a lower wacc, therefore increasing the EV. However, beyond that point, more debt also result in an increase in Re, which actually increases overall wacc, and leads to a lower EV. Is my reasoning correct?

 

High P/E = expensive investment, which means investors who already have invested are willing to pay more because they feel that the company will grow in the future giving them a profit on their investment.

High EV/EBITDA = Similar concept. However instead of 'Price' you have EV which includes debt and is a metric of the whole company, not just its equity.

So basically Company A probably has a larger Enterprise Value and Company B has less. However Company B could be a smaller company with much more anticipated growth, thus why investors are paying more for it. P/E is more subjective than EV multiples.

 
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Here's my take:

  • Assume both A and B have the same equity value and generate the same EBITDA.
  • Assume both A and B have the same cost of debt and tax rate.
  • Assume no minority interests etc. (just to keep things simple).

If A has a higher EV/EBITDA ratio than B -> A has higher debt -> higher interest payments.

Since earnings is EBITDA - D&A - Interest - Tax, if EBITDA is equal, B's interest payments are lower and they both share the same corporate tax rate, it should be that B has higher D&A.

Of course, if those assumptions are wrong then there are plenty of other explanations.

 

Nesciunt nulla enim corporis excepturi consequatur omnis laborum. Voluptas veniam repellendus sint ducimus esse.

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