"How Much Debt Can the Company Support" Question in Growth Capital Modeling Test
Hello,
I am working on a Growth Capital modeling test. After a standard 3-Statement projection in the next five years, there is a follow-up question about debt and I think it is quite different from regular one-page lbo model.
The question is: "Based on your analysis of the free cash flow, how much debt can the company support in the next 5 years?"
My preliminary thinking is that since we have:
1) Ending cash balance of 2016
2) Minimum cash requirement of 2017-2021
3) Projected Levered Free Cash Flow of 2017-2021
...we can use: assume Ending cash balance of 2017-2021 equals minimum cash requirement.
Maximum Debt Repayment in 2017 = Ending cash balance in 2016 + Levered FCF in 2017 - Minimum cash requirement in 2017
Maximum Debt Repayment in 2018 = Minimum cash requirement in 2017 + Levered FCF in 2018 - Minimum cash requirement in 2017
...
Maximum Debt Repayment in 2021 = Minimum cash requirement in 2020 + Levered FCF in 2021 - Minimum cash requirement in 2021
After these, add up Maximum Debt Repayment from 2017-2021 and then we have the answer.
But my calculation does not include any interest effects. So is my answer correct? Or there are any alternative approaches to answer this?
Thanks a lot
I would interpret the question as "given a maximum leverage ratio and the company's financial what is the maximum debt level at any point that the company can support?"
Not sure I'm properly understanding the facts the OP has laid out. Levered FCF by definition is cash flow remaining after debt service. Thus, the effects of debt service should already be included in levered FCF. You sure you're characterizing the question correctly?
Other thoughts: To simplify your equation above, you could just say ending 2016 cash, plus 2017-2021 FCF, minus the min 2021 cash balance. If FCF doesn't include interest, make some basic assumption like LIBOR+ 3.0% (yes, it's circular just like any 3 statement model with an RLOC feature). Also, consider any capital that must be returned to the equity (won't be included in levered FCF).
What? Just think about how cyclical the industry is and capex requirements. If not abnormally cyclical and has low capex requirements you can lever it up 6-7x ebitda np. Also look at interest coverage aim around 2x+
Leverage up to 6-7x? Depends on the size of the company. I don't see many MM deals north of 5.5x, regardless of cyclical vs. non-cyclical, industry, EV valuation, etc.
In larger deals, I rarely see deals go above 6x leverage, although the market is hot right now and a lot of these large deals are coming out at ~6x total AND covenant lite (ridiculous).
NPV function of Free Cash Flow Available for Debt Service over the next 5 years at the estimated (after tax) cost of debt.
This takes the 5 years literally, i.e. Debt completely repaid by the end of Year 5. You might want to mention as well that in reality you would apply a safety buffer to this calculation. Or that this formula is theoretical, and that in real life you would check the industry indebtedness, capex/wc requirements and cyclicality, and start discussing with banks what leverage they would offer and what makes them uncomfortable to go higher (you can rarely do something about it but at least you get to know where lenders perceive the risks). If first financing pitches point at 6.5-7x with reasonable pricing, credit risks are perceived as very limited.
Thanks, Sprezz. Very Instructive.
Let me get this straight. So: Cash Available for Debt Repayment = Beginning Cash Balance + Levered FCF - Minimum Cash Requirement Am I correct?
And how do you determine the Discount Rate of this NPC function? Just use the historical average interest rate?
Thanks
Each type of company / project has different acceptable levels of debt. Take an infrastructure project (toll road, long pipeline, etc) with $50mm of EBITDA versus a coal mine with $50mm of EBITDA. The infra project has long-life, stable cash flows, and will be able to support much more debt than the cyclical, high capex, volatile coal mine.
PV of cash available for debt service is good - you typically want to see coverage of 1.2x - 1.4x for low risk projects, 2.0x+ for high risk projects. Infra project can likely support 5.0x+ debt / EBITDA if interest coverage (EBITDA / interest) is high enough (I would look for 2.0x at a minimum). Some large pipeline operators prefer to stay under 4.0x as this increases their credit rating, lowers cost of capital, and allows for more dividend payments (banks won't be as nervous). For the commodity business I'd say no more than 2.5x debt / EBITDA, often times even 1.0x is too much in a high depreciation asset.
This is all very project / company specific as you would have to model out the underlying cash flows and look at a variety of metrics including debt / total cap, LLCR, PLCR, DSCR (for project finance debt), etc. You would stress test the model, obviously. Asset quality and other qualitative factors also come into play (strong sponsor that has invested a lot of equity in the project, high quality asset = more debt support).
The main thing is to be able to support your conclusion by using some of the metrics above. Ultimately how much debt a company can raise comes down to how much lenders are willing to risk - there is no magical formula to figure this out.
Thanks, Nuckfuts.
What if, I use "PV of Cash Available for Debt Services" and work out that Debt the company can support is more than 4x? Can I explain that we can use some High-Yield Debt to supplement Term Loan. Maybe something like, 1.5x Term Loan A, 1x Term Loan B and 1x Subordinated Loan?
Thanks
Your scenario and logic are plausible and could be reasonable, but again it all comes down to the assets themselves. This is where the logic becomes a bit circular:
So rather than rely too much on straight up CFADS (which is typically used in project finance / bank debt, not so much in mezzanine debt), I would suggest an alternative approach. This may be a bit unorthodox so someone jump in if they disagree. - You may be doing this analysis for an equity LBO, but to size debt you need to put on your lender hat for a moment - Unlike equity investors who want outsized returns, lenders want to make sure they get their money back and are adequately compensated for their risk given their position in the capital structure - Examine your CFADS projections more closely; as you move further in time, there is a larger risk that these projections won't play out due to some downside risk - Determine CFADS under a reasonable downside / "risked" scenario; for example, if the asset is a large industrial park with 60% of cash flows coming from a long-term lease with an A-rated counterparty and the rest are coming from trade sales and other short-term activities, the bank lenders may only be willing to consider the 60% of cash flows that are truly stable while heavily risking the volatile cash flow stream for purposes of CFADS calculation; you may also want to build in higher capex / opex projections to be extra safe - This "PV of downside CFADS" divided by some coverage ratio (something like 1.2x if project is already built and has history of stable cash flows, higher if there is construction or growth built in, even higher if there are other risks like FX / counterparty is not investment grade / etc) will give you a rough idea of how much bank debt the project can support; another way to think about this is collateral value - in a "fire sale" where the market is weak and there are limited buyers, what could you sell the underlying assets for? Banks would probably not want to lend above this value. - To size the remaining debt (let's call it one mezz tranche for now, no need to overcomplicate), go back to your base case cash flow projections; this part is more art than science, but after layering in bank debt servicing (interest + amortization), how much cash flow is available to the mezz and equity? Price the mezz at some interest rate based on underlying asset risk (err on the conservative side, something like 10% - 15% depending on the asset); now when you layer in these interest costs for [$100mm] mezz, what do the various leverage metrics look like over time? How will the mezz get paid out? In the downside scenario you used to size the bank debt, what happens to the mezz? Is there room for dividends in either case? Is cash building on the balance sheet? Study the financial statement projections and determine whether this level of leverage "works" for the business. It probably will not on your first try, so go back and try it with more or less mezz. Keep playing with the numbers and cash flows until you develop a feel for how the financial profile is affected by the different assumptions you are making, and eventually you will find a balanced case that "works". - Finally, run the equity returns - if the equity can't get at least 15% - 20% IRR under a reasonable exit or dividend payout assumption, you may need to refine your debt assumptions until you find a scenario that works for the equity.
This process can be tedious and time consuming, but I've found it's the best way to develop a good feel for a potential investment and whether or not there is a capital structure that would make everyone happy. If you can't find a capital structure that works for everyone (i.e. equity returns are good but debt is too high or vice versa) then that's a warning sign that the deal isn't so good, or perhaps the purchase price is too high.
Apologies for the wall of text but this is a topic where everyone has their own approach and there is a ton of subjectivity involved. Ultimately, as an interviewer I would look for the candidate to have developed some sort of reasonable process in their head for how they are thinking about the actual assets and capital structure. Anyone can use a simple set of formulas / guidelines, but it's the "art", not the "science" part of the process that will make you stand out.
I wouldn't structure it that way. You would typically see either a Unitranche loan up to 4.0x with sub debt below or a stretch/senior. If you're looking at 4.5x total leverage for your model, I would recommend doing 3.5x unitranche with 1x of sub debt below.
make assumptions about interest expenses and don't forget working capital uses/sources. also need to factor in capex. this isn't a test about whether you make assumptions or not but rather a test of do you understand how to calc fcf. let them know you thought about it.
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