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great vid, thanks. but what is your website? can't see it in the embedded vid.
It just links to the filled in and blank excel files
Thanks! I'm doing a real estate case comp for school so this part will definitely be helpful.
Thanks for sharing! Very helpful!! +1Sb
Appreciate the tutorial. You should caveat that this is an extremely basic scenario demonstrating the mechanics of calculating a capitalized interest reserve line item for a construction loan.
Some lenders will not let you realize expected operating cash flow as a reduction to your capitalized interest. Additionally, construction loans are generally floating with a floor and ceiling and not fixed.
Also, I think best practice is to show an operating cash flow reduction as a separate line in a sources and uses statement.
Help Modeling a Construction Loan w/ Two Components (Originally Posted: 04/30/2017)
Would someone be willing to show me how they would model a construction loan with a senior and junior components, with junior funding first? It seems to be much more complex than the basic construction loans I have looked at. I would be willing to pay $50 for someone to show me how they would set this up, and if they can help me with a few questions. PM me if you are interested. Thanks
bump, want to know how it works too, especially when the loan included the interest reserve. assuming IO and NO IO is totally different too?
Yes, this loan includes interest reserve as well.
why would the jr be modeled first? the sr would to make sure there is enough cash flow to cover cause they would be repaid first in the case of a bankrupcy.
I was wondering this as well, but I think he means the junior funds would be drawn first, thus interest kicking in earlier than the senior.
Junior gets funded first so the senior has the maximum amount of subordination from the time their first dollars are funded into the deal. The interest rate the senior receives is reflective of the reduced risk relative to the mezz/sub debt. Note that all of this is being done behind the scenes, so from a borrower's perspective, none of this matters as they are paying a single interest rate.
OP have you done an LP waterfall?
It is similar to that in that the equity is drawn down first, then the jr debt , and then the sr. It is just another tranche of something that is being drawn down,
I understand this, but I am struggling with how interest is treated once the jr debt is fully funded.
Let's not forget that mezz can also fund pari passu with the senior. It's not as common, but it happens for good deals and/or good sponsors. I would advise building this switch into your model. For pari passu funding, instead of funding all the mezz first, you just have to adjust the formula for the mezz draw down by multiplying the mezz/senior split to the draw and it should flow down to the senior draw line (which should just be the difference between the costs at that period and the equity and mezz draws above it).
As for the interest, I personally have two separate sections on the cash flow tab - one for senior loan cash flows and one for mezz. In these sections you can calculate the beginning and ending balance (as a function of draws and paydowns as well as accrued interest if it is added to the principal), interest rate based on spread and LIBOR (both for current and accrued interest) and the resulting interest payments.
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