Amortizing Financing Fees

Do you amortize financing fees faster if you pay down the debt faster? Ex: If we have $100 of debt and $2 of financing fees with a lifespan of 10 years, but I pay down 50% of my debt in Y1, does that mean my financing fees now are $1? or are they $1.80 or (.90 - 50% of the remaining 1.80)

 

I would accrue principal at close by the fees amount you owe, so you start with $102 and then amortize the whole amount in the way that makes sense for your model.

Check that there aren't any specific provisions how fees should be paid - especially if there was a draining negotiation to bring fees down.

 

What I have come across is this:

  • If there is no "original issue discount", then you get 100 at close, owe 102 with fees
  • If there is "original issue discount", the you get 98 at close, owe 100 with fees

You sound a lot more knowledgeable though!

 
Most Helpful

you are almost there. there’s two things going on for your debt balance here:

1) at close, debt will be marked at 98 on balance sheet. As it approaches maturity, it should goes up towards 100. This is accounted for in the income statement where you amortise $2fees/years of debt term each year.

if you work it out, the decrease in NI from amortisation on the P&L is exactly offset by the increase in debt on the BS (leaving taxes aside)

2) At EOY, if you repay debt early, you only ‘repay’ the portion of financing fees based on the amount of debt you are paying down (as you mentioned)

however what you missed is point 1), which you have to take into account in order to calculate point 2).

this line item is usually called ‘extinguishment of financing fees upon early debt repayment’.

OID (which is different from financing fees) would be treated the exact same way from an accounting perspective

 

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