Expected Market Returns

I can't figure out how the expected market return is calculated. I understand it's function in CAPM and in determining beta. But I don't see how any value for expected market return, market covariance with your stock, or variance of the market, that you're given is reliable.

Has someone ever calculated the expected return for each asset available, the SD for each asset, or correlation between every pair of assets?

To me this seems like the #1 flaw of CAPM because subjective probabilities are needed to even generate variance!!!

Sorry I've been studying for CFA recently.

 

Pretty sure you can just use an index as a proxy for the market return. I.e the S&P

-------------------------------------------------------- "I do not think there is any other quality so essential to success of any kind as the quality of perseverance. It overcom
 

And no, the number 1 flaw of the CAPM is not that there is no good way to get the market return, the number 1 flaw is generally accepted to be that it relies ONLY on the market return and the risk on that return to determine the expected return on a stock.

 
rebelcross:
And no, the number 1 flaw of the CAPM is not that there is no good way to get the market return, the number 1 flaw is generally accepted to be that it relies ONLY on the market return and the risk on that return to determine the expected return on a stock.

Isn't that what ICAPM and Fama-French correct for though?

-------------------------------------------------------- "I do not think there is any other quality so essential to success of any kind as the quality of perseverance. It overcom
 
coffeebateman:
rebelcross:
And no, the number 1 flaw of the CAPM is not that there is no good way to get the market return, the number 1 flaw is generally accepted to be that it relies ONLY on the market return and the risk on that return to determine the expected return on a stock.

Isn't that what ICAPM and Fama-French correct for though?

Of course, that's what put Fama French in business in the first place, the fact that market risk alone could be shown to be dominated by other risk factors in multi-factor regressions on stock returns. Something CAPM, by itself, can't compensate for.

 

If you want to be a keener, you can calculate the risk premium by calculating the returns of the S&P 500 for as much data as you collect, do the same thing for the US 10 year.

Geometric Average of S&P500 returns - Geometric Average of US 10 Year = risk premium.

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You're wading into the deep end here...

1) Apart from the various short-term effects that flows (such as ones we've had recently) can have on the curve, the shape is not just a function of the expectations of rates. More specifically, the further out you go, the larger the effect of convexity. In general, for the best explanation of the theory of this all you should refer to Antti Ilmanen's series of papers titled "Understanding the Yield Curve". There are also a LOT of technical issues that you may or may not be running afoul of when constructing these forwards. If you want to go into the gory details, let me know.

2) In theory, yes. In practice, not only is this some sort of a risk-neutral expected rate that you're getting, but actually getting it properly is a real pain.

 

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