Hypothetical investment question

Consider the following:

I purchase a stabilized multifamily asset at a 6 cap, hold it for 5 years with 3% annual I&E growth, and sell it at 6.25 cap. This gets me to a 7.00% unlevered return and a 13.27% levered return assuming 75% LTV and 4.25% Interest rate. I am including closing costs on acquisition and reversion.

This hypothetical scenario seems too good to be true. Assuming this hypothetical asset could indeed be acquired at a 6% and all market participants are rational, the only explanations to me are that other market participants would be assuming lower rent growth, more cap rate expansion, or very different debt assumptions. Am I crazy?

 
Most Helpful

Presumably the property has already increased rents aggressively through the lease-up if managed correctly, and if the submarket in question is anything like booming submarkets here, there are probably 2-3 additional starts that a buyer would have to contend with throughout the first two years of their ownership alone. Also, acquisitions guys, in my experience, underwrite more conservatively.

Loads of assumptions there, but I'll admit to being flippant with my "for an acquisition, yes" response. That too is submarket dependent.

Commercial Real Estate Developer
 

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