Impact of Dividends on Equity Value and Enterprise Value
Hi everyone,
Quick question on something that has been confusing me from some of the interview guides. When a company issues dividends, many of the guides say that this does not impact enterprise value. Given the formula for enterprise value, I am having a hard time seeing how that is the case.
If a firm issues $100 of dividends, then cash decreases by $100 (assuming they pay them and don't just declare them and create a payable). Retained earnings decreases as a result of the expense of issuing the dividends and so book value of equity decreases.
There is nothing that says the market value of the equity need change. Therefore, equity value may or may not change (it depends on how the market reacts to the dividend).
Given that, does not enterprise value decrease?
The formula is Enterprise Value = Equity Value + Debt + Preferred Shares + NCI - (Cash & Equivalents).
Cash goes down, nothing else obviously goes down, so enterprise value must go up?
If one assumes that the market price will change, then this might not be true. But as far as I can tell from looking at some research papers, it is far from given that the stock price will move up or down in response to a dividend (ceteris paribus).
Anyone who can point me toward some enlightenment, I would be very appreciative.
Yes, market value of equity will decrease based on a dividend. I recommend reading about the dividend ‘timeline’ dates for a better understanding (declaration, ex-dividend, record, payment).
The research papers you’re referring to are likely analyzing the declaration date price movements, which could go either way depending on one’s opinion of the company’s signaling (perhaps they are foregoing investment to pay a dividend).
Think about it logically - if a company is the same in every way before and after paying a dividend, but has less cash after, ownership will be valued lower. This, however, does not mean the operations of the company (enterprise value) will be valued lower.
It is always assumed that the market value of equity drops exactly the amount of the dividend. While I understand your reasoning, you should always follow that assumption.
Reason: If a company is the exact same as before minus $x then it should have an equity value minus those $x.
Ok, thanks for the help!
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