Pre money vs Post money. Please help!
If pre-money valuation is 50mn, and the investor gets 25% stake after infusing 20mn, what is the post money valuation?
Simply Pre money + investment does not make sense because 50+20=70mn and 20mn is not 25% of 70mn.
Am I missing something?
Haha you're almost there. All that matters is the fact that he infuses 20mn in return for a 25% stake. Therefore the implied post-money valuation is 80mn
Does that mean that the pre-money valuation in this instance would be 80 - 20 = 60?
If after Series A the valuation is $50mm, then yes at Series B the pre-money would be $60mm.
Thanks Greg but why does Series A have to be $50mm? Why can't it be any number? What is the link between Series A (post money?)valuation and Series B pre-money valuation?
Thank you.
You're correct - there is none.
There's no connection between the two, I just used the previous valuation that you mentioned in the OP.
^ +1
you never gave me that silver banana, god of wine ;(
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