Questions on PIK Notes
Hey guys,
A couple of basic question on PIK notes:
* Can a PIK note utilise both cash and PIK interest simultaneously? If so, do you have to apportion it (e.g. in one year, half the quantum is charged at the cash rate and the other half is charged at the PIK rate)?
- Should PIK interest to be accrued be calculated on the BoP balance or an average of BoP and EoP? Following that, should the cash interest component then be calculated on the BoP balance or an average of BoP and EoP?
Thanks!
Not sure if you have something specific in mind when you refer to "PIK Notes" but generally:
Thanks a lot for this. I was not referring anything specific, just PIK debt which is senior to a shareholder loan but junior to second lien debt.
Follow-up questions:
Is the aforementioned type of PIK debt not usually priced as just a percentage rather than a spread over LIBOR (e.g. Cash: 8.00%, PIK 10.00% rather than Cash: L+800, PIK: L+1000)?
If you were modelling PIK notes in a LBO, would you model them with a cash sweep (i.e. principal being paid down each year)?
If it is an annual model as opposed to quarterly, is using the BoP to calculate interest expense still the most correct methodology to use?
Assuming you have $500m of the aforementioned type of PIK debt which is priced at Cash: 8.00% and PIK: 10.00%, would you calculate interest using A or B (assuming we are calculating on BoP balance for simplicity)?
A) Cash Interest = 8.00% * $500m = $40m PIK Interest = 10.00% * $500m = $50m Total Interest = $40m + $50m = $90m (this seems too high...)
B) (Assuming the term sheet said something like "half of the interest is to be paid by cash, half by PIK") Cash Interest = 8.00% * $500m/2 = $20m PIK Interest = 10.00% * $500m/2 = $25m Total Interest = $20m + $25m = $45m
Metholodgy A) is almost double counting the interest expense no? How can you be paying the full 8.00% and full 10.00% on the same $500m quantum (acknowledging that the former is cash and latter is PIK)?
Thanks!
No problem.
Thank you very much for the help - that totally makes sense now. If you have a $500m instrument quoted at a Cash/PIK of 8.00%/10.00%, the 8.00% and 10.00% would both be applied to the $500m. I guess depending on your structure that would have a big negative impact on net income, but ultimately you add back the non-cash PIK component of that in the levered FCF calculation section of the LBO.
Thanks again!
Just to confirm - if you see something quoted in the following format: "$100m of PIK notes at 7.00%/7.50%", year 1 interest would be calculated as:
Cash: 7.0% x $100m PIK: 7.50% x $100m
or
Cash: 7.0% x $100m PIK: 0.5% x $100m
Thanks a lot!
did something recently where loan amoun was offered unsub with x% plus 3% pik. basically that means x% was just the regular loan but 3% accrued until end of 5 year holding period (estimated) where we would pay off the entire loan PIK balance at exit. that’s just what we did doesn’t mean it’s always like that but that’s how we modeled it
but regardless both are recorded as interest on IS etc PIK added back on OS of CFS etc etc
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