Questions on Vendor Take Back Mortgages

I'm working on a case study for a RE Investment Firm and have a couple questions about the financing terms provided:

Vendor Take-Back Mortgage

3 Years

2.5%

66.67% LTV

 

The 3 year term seems very low, especially considered against the 10-year hold I've been asked to model. I'm not entirely familiar with vendor take-back mortgages, but I assume the financing payments would be amortized the same as if the term were 25-30 years, leading to a large outflow of cash in the middle of the analysis.

Based on what I've read about this type of mortgage it's usually in addition to traditional financing, and is used to reduce the minimum down payment. The case doesn't mention any other form of financing but would you guys assume another source to increase the LTV?

Cheers

Comments (3)

 
Dec 28, 2020 - 12:45am

So a few things here - generally a vendor retaining a stake in the deal as a lender is used as a bridge financing tool (hence the 3 year period) but not always. You should model a refinancing at maturity. 

The amortization could be amortized. The vendor will certainly push for it in order to de-risk their loan basis but a 3 year deal is likely I/O. 

Lastly, if the case is doesn't mentioned any other lender... and assuming a c.67% LTV they're the sole and senior lender. 

I had a flair for languages. But I soon discovered that what talks best is dollars, dinars, drachmas, rubles, rupees and pounds fucking sterling.
  • 1
 
Dec 28, 2020 - 4:06pm

Thanks for the assistance. Yes, I forgot to specify that the 3-year term is interest only.

When it comes to refinancing, would you assume a traditional mortgage at a slightly higher interest rate?

 
Dec 28, 2020 - 5:04pm
I had a flair for languages. But I soon discovered that what talks best is dollars, dinars, drachmas, rubles, rupees and pounds fucking sterling.
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