Hi - quick question. Was listening to some of my MD's speak on this subject and I wanted to know - is there a specific difference in terms of both process, and risk?
Obviously if after underwriting a TLB, no one wants to buy it - you're stuck with 300mm in paper. Is this the same idea for bridging a high yield issue?
Thank you in advance (and please don't hesitate to tell me I'm completely wrong if so)