DCF valuation results into post-money or pre-money valuation?
Business plan involves future revenues which are already based on investment from investors, so valuation based on DCF should be post-money valuation? I am confused because usually if you perform valuation before investment it is pre-money valuation and than plus investment results to post-money valuation.
ulrichp, sorry there are no responses yet. Maybe one of these topics can point you in the right direction:
If those topics were completely useless, don't blame me, blame my programmers...
Did you every get to the bottom of this? I'm interest in the answer too.
It doesn’t technically equate to either pre or post but I’d look at it as post because that’s the EV off of which you calculate ownership splits and will determine your economics off of going forward
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