What does “cyclicality would de-rate relative to certainty” mean?
Hi, student here. I have a question about today’s article of the Unhedged newsletter that FT puts out. In the article, which interviews Albert Edwards and his ice age thesis, Edwards says:
“The Japanification of the US and Europe was basically like the secular stagnation thesis. In financial markets, cyclicality would de-rate relative to certainty. So equities would underperform government bonds. We’d reach the stage in the economic cycle where the traditional correlation between bonds and equities would break down. As inflation got lower, what you might call the Abby Cohen thesis said that lower bond yields are great for equities because the P/E ratio will go up forever. But we thought that eventually, as you got down to sub-2 per cent inflation and bond yields fell further, the “P” would start coming down. That’s what happened in Japan.”
I have two questions: what does “cyclicality would de-rate relative to certainty” mean? And why would stock prices fall if if bond yields fall too far? I understand that decreased bones yields would make equities more attractive to investors, so why would there be a fall in stock prices? However
Ah, diving into the deep end of financial theory, are we? Let's break this down:
Cyclicality would de-rate relative to certainty:
Why would stock prices fall if bond yields fall too far?
Remember, in the world of finance, the relationship between different asset classes can be complex and counterintuitive, depending on the broader economic context. It's like trying to predict where the banana peel will be on the sidewalk of the market – sometimes it's right in front of you, and other times it's nowhere to be seen. Keep studying and you'll get the hang of these slippery concepts!
Sources: A Decade Into IB: Teetering on the Edge of Cataclysm?, Bulls vs. Bears in 2018, The ‘Business Cycle’ framework, Will robots replace your consulting or financial career?, DCF Modeling Course ~ Pre-training text.pdf
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