operating leases?
are capitilzied operating leases always added to EV?
are capitilzied operating leases always added to EV?
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operating leases by definition aren't capitalized.
capital leases (treated similarly to debt) get added to the EV calculation.
where are you seeing capitalized operating leases?
I'm making it up as I go along.
Where aren't you suppose to manually capitalize operating leases and treat it as debt?
Or not?
operating leases will show up on income statements under an expense line item. You have to capitalize an operating lease if 1. The rent term is 75% or more of the life of the asset. 2. PV of interest and payments are 90% or more than an outright purchase of the asset. 3. An obligation to buy the asset at salvage value at the end of the term....and i cant remember the fourth.
i am familar with the rules. but in IB, do you capitlize operating leases manually and add it to EV becasue for all intents and purposes, an operating lease is also a fixed amount of cash out flows, just like debt
Most operating leases contain a change of control clause that voids those agreements anyway in an M&A setting so you will just treat them as rent expense. If you think about it in terms similar to a lease agreement on a building - rent is also a fixed outflow but you do not need to capitalize it because you do not own the asset - you are just renting it for a certain period of time. If you decide to capitalize you basically assume that you own the asset and will have to make assumptions for depreciation. Hope this helps
.
double post
Usually in IB you don't really do that. You use EBITDAR/EV multiples if you need to standardize Rent/Lease payments.
Theoretically if you did, it would standardize EBITDA somewhat. Usually not material.
The OP is referring a technique of standardizing EBITDA some valuation methods call for in order to create more comparability between companies that borrow money to buy their PP&E and companies that rent their PP&E. In that case, capitalized operating leases are just treated like debt, and thus included in EV.
But as hardbanker mentioned, this is a theoretical approach rarely seen in practice in IB. In most cases, we just use the quick-and-dirty method of looking at EBITDAR (R = rent). Hope this helps.
This isn't necessarily true:
capital leases (treated similarly to debt) get added to the EV calculation
add to EV and normally you find the PV of those rents included in the notes to the financial statements.
.
Operating Leases and Capital Budgeting (Originally Posted: 06/18/2015)
I've been trying to update our capital budgeting process to remove operating leases from the forecast and handle them separately as a finance decision. What I'm struggling with is the proper calculation of WACC to use for capital budgeting decisions.
When looking at ROIC for the company, we include the PV of operating leases as one of the weights in our capital structure when calculating WACC. However, when looking at new projects I'm wondering if that approach really matches my cash flow assumptions since if the new capital asset we have were leased, the pv of the lease payments would only equate to about 60% of the purchase price.
Has any one else dealt with this?
Thanks
Looks like you have a situation where you are comparing two companies, one that is asset heavy (purchases the assets) and another that is asset light (Leases the assets). It appears your model is attempting to remove the affect of that decision to buy vs lease, by removing the lease payments from the operating model, capitalizing the leased assets and increasing debt service and adding interest expense??? Is this correct? The question is a bit confusing, Are you trying to put together a CapX budget? Look at the effect of CapX on ROIC? Valuation work?
Please clarify
Thank you for the response. Let me try to clarify.
I am working on improving our CapX budgeting process. Historically, new projects have been assembled and if they were going to be leased that was incorporated into the project financials. However, I would like to remove the leasing decision from the project financials and handle it by using a WACC that is adjusted for the total capital structure including leasing.
Where I'm struggling is how to arrive at the WACC. Typically when comparing companies or doing ROIC I would use the PV of lease payments to arrive at the weighting of leases in a company's capital structure. I'm wondering if that method still makes sense when considering new projects.
Operating leases and pension in M&A/HY Offerings (Originally Posted: 02/15/2010)
Do you always include the additional debt liabilities for operating leases and underfunded pensions when going through an M&A or high yield offering to find out the "true outstanding debt" that ratings agencies calculate as the result of a particular transaction?
Yeah - anything pari passu (on an equal basis) with senior debt is important for HY because it works into figuring out expected recovery values. Quick and dirty rule of thumb I use - if its more than 2x leverage start looking at pension / rents more to see if anything is going on there. Of course if you are going in depth this stuff is very important.
Good response big unit. In PE, we adjust debt by 6x rent/lease expense.
Why are Capital/Operating leases set up so $1 is the final payment? (Originally Posted: 05/28/2016)
I understand that it is for tax or legal purposes, but why $1? What does that accomplish/what is the point? Can someone explain further?
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