pedaltodaflo:
are capitilzied operating leases always added to EV?

operating leases by definition aren't capitalized.

capital leases (treated similarly to debt) get added to the EV calculation.

where are you seeing capitalized operating leases?

I'm making it up as I go along.

------------ I'm making it up as I go along.
 
ByAWideMargin:
operating leases will show up on income statements under an expense line item. You have to capitalize an operating lease if 1. The rent term is 75% or more of the life of the asset. 2. PV of interest and payments are 90% or more than an outright purchase of the asset. 3. An obligation to buy the asset at salvage value at the end of the term....and i cant remember the fourth.

i am familar with the rules. but in IB, do you capitlize operating leases manually and add it to EV becasue for all intents and purposes, an operating lease is also a fixed amount of cash out flows, just like debt

 

Most operating leases contain a change of control clause that voids those agreements anyway in an M&A setting so you will just treat them as rent expense. If you think about it in terms similar to a lease agreement on a building - rent is also a fixed outflow but you do not need to capitalize it because you do not own the asset - you are just renting it for a certain period of time. If you decide to capitalize you basically assume that you own the asset and will have to make assumptions for depreciation. Hope this helps

 

The OP is referring a technique of standardizing EBITDA some valuation methods call for in order to create more comparability between companies that borrow money to buy their PP&E and companies that rent their PP&E. In that case, capitalized operating leases are just treated like debt, and thus included in EV.

But as hardbanker mentioned, this is a theoretical approach rarely seen in practice in IB. In most cases, we just use the quick-and-dirty method of looking at EBITDAR (R = rent). Hope this helps.

 
Best Response

Looks like you have a situation where you are comparing two companies, one that is asset heavy (purchases the assets) and another that is asset light (Leases the assets). It appears your model is attempting to remove the affect of that decision to buy vs lease, by removing the lease payments from the operating model, capitalizing the leased assets and increasing debt service and adding interest expense??? Is this correct? The question is a bit confusing, Are you trying to put together a CapX budget? Look at the effect of CapX on ROIC? Valuation work?

Please clarify

 

Thank you for the response. Let me try to clarify.

I am working on improving our CapX budgeting process. Historically, new projects have been assembled and if they were going to be leased that was incorporated into the project financials. However, I would like to remove the leasing decision from the project financials and handle it by using a WACC that is adjusted for the total capital structure including leasing.

Where I'm struggling is how to arrive at the WACC. Typically when comparing companies or doing ROIC I would use the PV of lease payments to arrive at the weighting of leases in a company's capital structure. I'm wondering if that method still makes sense when considering new projects.

 

Yeah - anything pari passu (on an equal basis) with senior debt is important for HY because it works into figuring out expected recovery values. Quick and dirty rule of thumb I use - if its more than 2x leverage start looking at pension / rents more to see if anything is going on there. Of course if you are going in depth this stuff is very important.

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