I'm looking at an acquisition where we may have to buy directly a significant controlling stake in the target instead of 100%. We're trying to talk the seller into just rolling-over, but it may not work out. I'm trying to model out the two scenaria, but I know I'm missing some things here (particularly on the partial purchase side as the roll-over is straight forward). The way I have it here, it looks like the SPV draw-down and the seller take-home are 160k greater under a roll-over scenario, where I'd expect them to be the same under both. Please advise. Thanks in advance.
Consectetur facilis ab repellat temporibus nihil voluptas. Nesciunt velit qui temporibus ipsa. Qui rerum doloribus et accusamus ea dolor quia eos.
See All Comments - 100% Free
WSO depends on everyone being able to pitch in when they know something. Unlock with your email and get bonus: 6 financial modeling lessons free ($199 value)
or Unlock with your social account...