I know there have been a few topics regarding how carried interest works for deal guys getting a piece of the carry, and it's fairly easy to articulate on deals where you can isolate a GP promote and then take a % of that.
On the flip side, let's say rather than selling, the choice is made to refinance asset (let's assume it's a single tenant retail development whereby at stabilization, the property could support a refi where 100% of the dev cost (debt and equity) can be refinanced, effectively returning 100% of equity back to investor). Since there is no terminal event, what would be an "appropriate" ask in terms of getting a % share of the net cash flow of the asset going forward? Is there a methodology that would cover both the sell/profit scenario and refinance/interest in the recurring cash flow? I am trying to keep it as a simple clause rather than having a bunch of IF/THEN scenarios, if that make sense.
Any tips would be much appreciated!
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