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I would think so but I'm not completely sure. My reasoning goes:

If you buy a company at 1.5x leverage for $25 ($15 debt, $10 equity), and the cash flows are $1 each year for 5 years and you sell the company for a reduced price of $12 in the final year, $10 of which is used to pay down the debt (so $2 in the last cash flow), your IRR will be negative.

Put in: $10 Get back: $1+1+1+1+1+$2 = $7

Is this right, or am I overthinking it?

 

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