Multiples for valuing Banks

Why do we use P / BV for valuing banks over something like EV / EBIT? I understand EBITDA should not be used since financial institutions are not capital intensive, but won't EBIT be a good metric of profitability. How does P / BV even tell anything about profitability??

Bank Valuation Multiple

Here's an intuitive perspective on valuing financial services firms. Additionally there is a pdf attached about valuing financial services firms from NYU Stern.
from certified user @SpacemanSpiff"

Think of a bank's balance sheet. What do you have? On the asset side you have financial assets earning some sort of interest income. On the liabilities side you have deposits costing some sort of interest expense. Banks use deposits (and a lesser extent, debt) as raw material to acquire assets that produce interest income.

  1. Tell me how you get to earnings before interest and taxes if you earnings are literally just interest income
  2. What do you define as debt? Are deposits debt? How do you estimate cashflows before debt payments in that case?
  3. Bank assets are (or should be) marked-to-market on an ongoing basis. This inherently implies that the equity value of the bank will, more-or-less, be a reasonable approximation of the actual value of the business.

What P/BV (and P/TBV) tell you is simple. If your P/BV is less than 1, the market is saying either your assets are overvalued, or you are earning a poor (or even negative) return on your assets. If your P/BV is greater than one, the market is saying your assets are undervalued (rare) or that you are earning a good return on your assets.

The higher the P/BV multiple the more the market is giving you respect for your ability to earn more given a dollar of additional equity (i.e. your return on equity is greater)

Here's a short video on valuing a financial services service firms.

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8 Comments
 

I'm going to take a shot here but I may be wrong.

Financial institutions are a special industry in which interest is pretty much the main operating expense. As a natural consequence, EBIT is a poor operating metric because it is pre-interest, and does not account for that operating expense.

P/BV, or rather P/TBV seem to be metrics that are commonly used to value financial institutions. One reason that I can think of is that it is because financial assets/liabilities on their balance sheets would/should be marked-to-market, and therefore be a fairly accurate reflection of the overall worth of the company. This is of course, contrasted with a company which owns many "real" assets like factories or ships, where over time, the book value of the assets they own will deviate from the "market value" of those assets - and will therefore be an inaccurate "snapshot" of how much that company is actually worth.

Moving on, from a theoretical standpoint, if the Law of one price holds, one would assume that financial institutions should trade at a P/BV or P/TBV of 1.0x. After all, a value smaller than 1.0x would imply that it is undervalued, and a value larger than 1.0x would imply the opposite.

That is where profitability/growth may come in - to explain why its P/BV or P/TBV isn't 1.0x. A highly profitable financial institution, or one that has good growth prospects will probably trade at values over 1.0x and obviously the opposite should occur in a bearish market.

This could possibly explain why banks like Morgan Stanley is currently trading at 0.64x P/BV and Goldman Sachs at 0.84x - the outlook for the short to medium term is pretty gloomy.

 
Best Response

Think of a bank's balance sheet. What do you have? On the asset side you have financial assets earning some sort of interest income. On the liabilities side you have deposits costing some sort of interest expense. Banks use deposits (and a lesser extent, debt) as raw material to acquire assets that produce interest income.

  1. Tell me how you get to earnings before interest and taxes if you earnings are literally just interest income
  2. What do you define as debt? Are deposits debt? How do you estimate cashflows before debt payments in that case?
  3. Bank assets are (or should be) marked-to-market on an ongoing basis. This inherently implies that the equity value of the bank will, more-or-less, be a reasonable approximation of the actual value of the business.

What P/BV (and P/TBV) tell you is simple. If your P/BV is less than 1, the market is saying either your assets are overvalued, or you are earning a poor (or even negative) return on your assets. If your P/BV is greater than one, the market is saying your assets are undervalued (rare) or that you are earning a good return on your assets.

The higher the P/BV multiple the more the market is giving you respect for your ability to earn more given a dollar of additional equity (i.e. your return on equity is greater)

Read this for more information if you're interested http://pages.stern.nyu.edu/~adamodar/pdfiles/valn2ed/ch21.pdf

 

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