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Hey all, I have a rather elementary question--I hope you understand and ask for your patience with my ignorance. I never really had a fundamental grasp of the concept of bonds, and had a question about an example I saw on Investopedia. The example was as follows: on Day 1, a bond has a par value of $1000 and a 10% coupon with a 1 year maturity, but on Day 2, it plummets and is now at a market price of $800. The yield (whatever that is) is calculated as 100/800 = 12.5%.

Here's what I don't get about this calculation. This is my line of thinking: say you buy the bond on Day 2. At the end of the year, your net worth is -$800 + $1100 = $300. The "profit" you earned consists of a) the $1000 face value you get paid, b) the $100 in coupons, c) minus the $800 you paid to get the bond on Day 2. Continuing my line of thinking, it makes sense to me that the yield should be 300/800 = 37.5%.

So my question is: when calculating yield, why would you not take into account the profit you pocket BESIDES the coupon payments?

 

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Keep it together and you will go far..

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