Deciphering fund raise history (confusion on terms)

Hello all,

I am trying to understand the terms for a project (but being new and dipped in folly am unable to get it)

Fundraise history for an early stage start up as follows:

May 2013: $1mn seed round at $3mn pre money Jan 2015: $700k round as convertible note at $10mn pre money cap and 20 percent discount

Jan 2019: Start up now looking to raise $3mn at $15mn pre money valuation.

My doubts: To analyze this, does the Jan 2019 15mn pre money valuation include also the convertible debt? How does it work? What will be the final cap table? I don't understand how to calculate this without knowing the amount of shares outstanding...

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No details on the interest etc. but anyways...

The conv note will convert into equity, but there are nuances.

The Jan 2015 cap is $10m. But the Jan 2019 premoney valuation - the discount: $15m * (1-20%) = $12m.

So you ignore the discount since $12m > $10m.

Thus the equity share of the conv. note at conversion is $700k/$10m = 7%.

But this conversion comes at the Jan 2019 round.

So how does the final cap table work out:

May 2013. $1m at $3m pre = $4m post. Seed investor(s) has 25%, Founders have 75%.

Jan 2015 round. No change in cap table as the conv. note hasn't converted.

Jan 2019 round. Let's call this Series A. $3m at $15m pre = $18m post. Series A investors will have 16.7%. But we add the convertible note dilution. So the total dilution is 16.7% + 7% = 23.7%.

So on a fully diluted basis:

Founders: 75% * (1-23.7%) = 57.2%. Seed investors: 25% * (1-23.7%) = 19.1%. Conv note investors: 7%. Series A investors: 16.7%.

Sum: 100%

 

Thanks for the clear breakdown. Just for curiosity's sake, would any of the calculations change if you included interest but assumed no amort?

Edit: Sorry, just saw you answered this below.

Array
 

Wow great explanations. Would you be able to explain how these would change if the Series A had a full ratchet provision?

run-rate pro-forma illustrative adjusted normalized management EBITDA
 

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