Say a company raises 10 from an external VC who gets a 20% stake in the company. At the same time the company owner (who already own a majority in the company) puts in 2 in the company. Is the post money valuation 10/20% = 50 or is it 50+ 2 = 52?
Likewise is the pre-money valuation 50-10 = 40 or 50-10-2 = 38 or 52-12 = 40?
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Assuming you mean that the VC invests 10 of a 12 round, where the owner puts in the other 2, post money would be 50. 10/50 = 20% of the company,
Pre-money would be post less the full investment amount, so 50-10-2 = 38
Thanks Cali... Just thinking... if I keep the question same for the most part and just change the amount that the owner now puts in as 45 (so that the total fund round is now 55: 45 of the owner + 10 of the VC), then the pre-money becomes negative which doesn't make sense. Very very hypothetical, but is something wrong with that logic? Seems like the post money value is completely independent of how much money the owner puts ...
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