Vacancy Assumption Question

For all the multifamily RE guys, when determining LTV you can size up to assuming it’s agency 60-65% / 1.25x dscr; if the asset your acquiring is already at 7% vacancy - do you use the in place vacancy as your assumption or do you tack on a couple extra bps? Would that be double counting vacancy? 

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We look at this two ways:

  1. Based on todays occupancy, plus any additional vacancy reserve to get to market vacancy if the asset is above average occupancy. This is how the lender is likely to look at it if you are going for permanent financing. We will use this as our internal base case loan sizing until we get lender commitment.
  1. Based on stabilized occupancy less a market reserve. This is the scenario we will present to the lender with our business plan.
 

CREnadian nailed it. Hopefully I can simplify this even more if you're still unclear.

The key is to identify the Market Vacancy -- this is how the lender is likely to underwrite the asset. If your Market Vacancy is 7%, then leave your in-place vacancy alone. If your Market Vacancy is 9%, then underwrite to 9% In-Place Vacancy. Whether or not you include a line item for In-Place Vacancy and another for Market Vacancy, the exercise of sizing up the max loan proceeds based on DSCR is the same. 

 

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