I am transferring interally soon from Foregin Exchange Strategy to Leverage Loan trading and when I was visitng my new desk, they were giving me a quick lesson about how loan trading works.
Apprarantly, if a loan is marked at 99.50 and I sell 10 million of it to a counterparty at 99.80,(a markup of 30bps),I have to pay the counterparty Par minus the sale price, in this case 100-99.80=20bps, so I(the seller) actually pays .0020*10,000,000=20,000; Why does the seller have to pay the buyer this difference? I was told it has to do with leverage loans being a liability? If thats the case, how much does the seller make in this case? Any response would be appreciated.
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