Quick dcf question about 1-year TP
When you run a DCF, you're taking all future free cash flows and discounting it to today. So essentially, that's the intrinsic value of the company at the present. If you're looking for the 1-year TP, would you discount the free cash flows back but only up to the period one year from the present?
What does TP stand for?
Do you mean terminal value?
I think by TP he maybe means target price? It's usually written as PT though, "price target".
If so: No, discount back to present-day. The 1-year price target is taking into consideration assumptions on forward-looking catalysts that drive the thesis of the argument supporting the PT.
Technically you can discount back to one year from now to get the 1-year price target. Think about it. You have your assumptions which give you free CFs for the next t years and a terminal value. You get the present value by discount everything back to today. Then, why should it be different if you want a value one year from now. My 2 cents.
Theoretically, you discount it to today and then x cost of equity to get the target price 1 year out; in practice you should just discount it to today.
Why the difference in theory and practice?
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