Quick dcf question about 1-year TP

When you run a DCF, you're taking all future free cash flows and discounting it to today. So essentially, that's the intrinsic value of the company at the present. If you're looking for the 1-year TP, would you discount the free cash flows back but only up to the period one year from the present?

 

Technically you can discount back to one year from now to get the 1-year price target. Think about it. You have your assumptions which give you free CFs for the next t years and a terminal value. You get the present value by discount everything back to today. Then, why should it be different if you want a value one year from now. My 2 cents.

 

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