FX Forward Question

Been a long time since I posted on here, but this came up the other day and I'm hoping someone can help me understand it (I'm a senior analyst at a hedge fund, have been for some years).

I have a 6 month FX Forward related to an equity position. If I value the FX forward as: Foreign FX Quantity/Spot Value of Forward FX Rate - Foreign FX Quantity/Entry Value of Forward FX Rate I calculate one pnl (call this Method A).

If I value the FX Forward as: (Spot Value of Forward FX Rate - Entry Value of Forward FX Rate)*(USD Cost of FX Quantity)/(FX Spot Rate) I calculate another pnl (call this Method B).

Can one of you kids explain to me why Method B is more correct than Method A? I feel like this is something I knew at one point but have forgotten in the span of my career. I think it does matter than I want dollarized PnL.

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