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Wouldn't change in PPE + D&A give you capex + sale of PPE?
If talking only about tangible assets (not dealing with intangibles that need to be amortized as those can be classified differently):
Beginning PP&E + CapEx - Depreciation - Sales of Assets = Ending PP&E
This also assumes no write-ups or write-downs, which would cause a discrepancy if unaccounted for.
I just can't seem to make it fit.
I want to fint the Capex(including capex for intangibles). I take change in PPE+change in intangibles and subtract and account for sale of these as well. Then I add depreciation&amortization and I would expect to the same number as when adding up from the CF statement.
nothing in the notes to the financial statements? sometimes they break down their capex in earnings transcripts.
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