When doing a DCF model for a company with no debt & preferred stock, WACC will only consist of cost of equity. So,
Is the cash flow at the bottom just the free cash flow to equity?
Do we get implied equity value at the end or would it still be enterprise value?
If we get implied equity value, would the sensitivity table then be just evaluating equity value at diff multiples/WACC?
Would love to hear some thoughts from y'all.
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