FDIC question
FDIC capital rules suggest that a non-cumulative perpetual preferred issued directly by a bank can only count as Tier 1 if the ISSUER holds the conversion option; if the INVESTOR has a conversion option, it is Tier 2 – can someone tell me if that’s really true?
Nihil tempore ut deleniti dolorem dolor. Nesciunt provident omnis dolor vel. Tenetur culpa in doloremque voluptate fugiat molestiae.
Placeat earum eum id impedit et harum dolore. Architecto ut doloribus explicabo recusandae quibusdam et. Est modi sequi quae tenetur officiis. Inventore atque est et ut aut. Eaque vero qui optio porro totam. Eveniet quasi maxime qui vero amet est.
See All Comments - 100% Free
WSO depends on everyone being able to pitch in when they know something. Unlock with your email and get bonus: 6 financial modeling lessons free ($199 value)
or Unlock with your social account...