How would I model this....

I have a start-up company with 100M in assets... and 50M in debt. The assets are strt-lined for 10 yrs, the debt matures in 10 yrs.

So when I did a quick and dirty model I just modeled it as a runoff... took assets and debt out to year 10, assumed a salvage value for the assets, taxed it, paid off any outstanding debt and liab, and distributed the remaining proceeds + cash to equity holders... that gave me an IRR. But if I refin the debt once its due, and buy new assets... my IRR is minuscule... so I need an exit multiple/perpetuity.... BUUUUT....
How would I even normalize my yr 10 cash-flows?

The issue is my 50M debt is an ABL tied to the 100M assets. As a result of the depreciation, the debt has a mandatory amortization. So what is my normalized interest expense, considering in yr 1 I have 100M in debt and year 9 I have 10M in debt?

I have a feeling I'm overlooking something really straight-forward.

 
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