Why FCFF = unlevered free cash flow?
levered beta contains the risk related to equity holder and debt holder
Similarly, FCFF is the one considering both equity and debt.
But why:
FCFE = levered free cash flow.
FCFF = unlevered free cash flow.
Seems contradictory.
Simple answer: Beta is only used in CAPM --> cost of equity, not in cost of debt. Its the regression of the equity value of a company and the total equity market. The debt factor is just to incorporate the gearing --> higher gearing = riskier because higher chance of default with possible 0 return for equity holder.
Sorry, I might not get it. Just ignore the beta in CAPM. FCFF, literally, is free cash flow for firm. I think it implies the cash flow is both equity and debt related. If so, isn't it levered cash flow? Thanks a lot!
Id eligendi modi soluta placeat. Assumenda minus dolorem aut ipsa iure sit quaerat.
See All Comments - 100% Free
WSO depends on everyone being able to pitch in when they know something. Unlock with your email and get bonus: 6 financial modeling lessons free ($199 value)
or Unlock with your social account...