In this case (linked inside) how did they get the number for % identifiable intangibles? Amort. period?
If you look at this case and then look at the screen grab from the Excel sheet, you'll see "% Identifiable Intangibles" as 15.0%. Where did that 15% number come from? And Amortization period, where did that 10 number come from?
The whole goodwill and intangibles column has been stumping me all day but mainly I'm sure I could move forward if I knew where those 15% and 10 numbers came from. Thanks as always.
Where are you getting this 15% from? The prompt mentions that the assets are not being written up. So think all the excess equity will go to Goodwill.
The 15% is wrong. 10 year amortization period is arbitrary. Amortization periods vary depending on economic nature of identifiable intangible.
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