Why people use EBIT / EBITDA in leverage ratios?

 I always ask myself why EBITDA is so heavily used over Free-Cash-Flow in general, but in terms of debt ratios it particularly surprises me. 

Why would I calculate my debt ratios not with FCF? Like my interest coverage ratio using EBITDA/EBIT can be fine but if I have huge CapEx / non operating outflows I am still screwed not using FCF as a metric. 

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