If SVB was midway through funding a construction loan, what would happen?
What would happen in this instance. Not fully understanding implications of this on RE. If anyone has insight, please share.
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The FDIC does not typically fund loan commitments for a bank in receivership. Only in very rare cases where recovery of assets would be much greater by them providing the funding. In a syndicate, another lender may be required to step in and fund the portion of the defaulting lender (i.e. SVB).
Interesting. So how would a developer proceed in such a scenario (assuming there was no syndicate partner)?
This happens
https://www.builderonline.com/land/development/fdic-sells-corus-banks-4…
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