Different ways to calculate FCF?

Quick question, and I'm probably missing something stupid here, but I'm working through an example LBO that a friend sent me from one of his MBA courses.

Values are as follows:
EBITDA - 190
D&A - 30
EBIT - 160
CapEx - 29
Change NWC- -40

The model template calculates FCF like this: EBITDA - CapEx - Change NWC - Taxes; which gives 190 - 29 - 40 - 36 = 85. Then it subtracts interest of 69 to give cash available of 15.

This gives a different answer than the "standard" formula from interview guides of EBIT(1-t) + D&A - Change NWC - CapEx; 160 (1-.4) +30 - 40 - 29 = 57.

What's the best way to think about this? Thanks.

 

Thanks for the responses.

Think I found the error, it is pretty dumb as I thought: in the equation it's supposed to be EBT(1-t), not EBIT(1-t), correct? The former gives the same answer as the template, 15, post interest expense.

Looks like the model just does things in a different order and takes out interest expense at the end (tax expense is calculated off of post-interest expense).

I need sleep. Thanks again.

 
lost monkey:

Thanks for the responses.

Think I found the error, it is pretty dumb as I thought: in the equation it's supposed to be EBT(1-t), not EBIT(1-t), correct? The former gives the same answer as the template, 15, post interest expense.

Looks like the model just does things in a different order and takes out interest expense at the end (tax expense is calculated off of post-interest expense).

I need sleep. Thanks again.

edit - read quickly and didn't notice you mentioned interest expsne (but for some reason buried it after all the other relevant info was clearly listed)

 
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