Indirectly it affects consideration. If purchase price is low, generally firms will use cash vs when its very high, firms use more equity. The more cash used means more forgone interest income, more additional interest from the revolve/new debt, but this also means less dilution from new share. It can still be dilutive however.

 

okay so in my example, with both companies earning 10 in NI. Let's say the company pays in all cash. Let's say cash foregone interest rate is 10%, and they buy this company for $200. Therefore, foregone interest is $20*(1-40%) = 12 Now the combined income is (10-12) + 10 = 8 8/100 shares = 0.08, therefore if they pay $200 for this, its dilutive?

Is that how it works?

 

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