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When expressing returns for short positions, the most helpful WSO content suggests the following considerations:
IRR (Internal Rate of Return):
IRR can be used to measure the return on short positions, but it requires careful handling of cash flows. The upfront cash received from the short sale can be treated as an inflow, and subsequent cash outflows (e.g., covering the short position) are included. However, as you noted, the cost basis is variable and depends on the future price of the security, which complicates the calculation. IRR is particularly useful if you want to account for the time value of money and compare returns across different time horizons.
MOIC (Multiple on Invested Capital):
MOIC is less commonly used for short positions because it doesn't account for the time value of money. However, it can still provide a straightforward measure of the return by comparing the total profit or loss to the initial cash inflow from the short sale. This is simpler but less precise than IRR.
Combining Shorts with Longs (Arbitrage):
When combining a short position with a long investment (e.g., in arbitrage strategies), the return metrics should ideally reflect the combined cash flows of both positions. IRR is often the preferred metric in such cases because it can handle the complexity of multiple cash flow streams and their timing. However, you must carefully model the cash flows for both the long and short positions to ensure accuracy.
Cash Flow Treatment:
In summary, IRR is generally the best way to express returns for short positions, especially when combined with long investments, as it accounts for the time value of money and the variability of cash flows. However, the complexity of modeling these cash flows accurately should not be underestimated.
Sources: Shorting Stocks: My Research Process & 7 Rules I Follow, What is the Shorting "Research" Process, Relationship among Cap Rate, IRR, Discount rate and NPV, Real Estate Private Equity Technical Qs, How do you compute IRR without any negative cash flows?
You have massively overcomplicated this
Please explain
It’s just going to be the % change between the price you shorted at and the price you covered at.
Maybe because my trade horizons are shorter, but I’ve never expressed a return through IRR or MOIC
Agree. Sounds like a PE person trying to overcomplicate a very simple thing.
Got it thanks. That seems effectively a MOIC calc though
Edit: Am getting MS and critical comments but have yet to hear how viewing returns in terms of % change is any different from MOIC. See below reply to Mr. “Proprietary”
Separately if anyone has thoughts on the original question would love to hear.
No bro it’s really fckin not. Equity people do not think in terms like MOIC but if you want to look like a clown during your pod interview, by all means pitch a short with a “0.45x MOIC expected return” and see what happens
What returns metric do you use then and how is it conceptually different from MOIC?
If these are the questions you’re still asking, the pod job you’re interviewing for is just not for you my dude
We use a proprietary function called the proportionate trade return curve
δ = (α-η)/α
Effectively, this allows you to express the short's return (δ) as a function of the price delta (α-η) and as a proportionate figure to the original price you shorted at (α)
It's nifty because if you multiply it by 100, you can express it as a proportion of 100.
lol just use the lingo dude. It’s like saying “I manage a 1000 million portfolio”. Technically correct but u sound dumb af. Literally no one thinks in terms of MOIC, and part of that reason is because forecast and investment horizons are way smaller than PE (sometimes in weeks) so it doesn’t make sense anymore
That’s fine I have no problem using standard lingo. Was just trying to understand how people view measuring returns on shorts.
And others in this thread clearly didn’t seem to agree that moic = percentage change so was just wanting to clarify that point and understand if I was missing something. As a matter of presentation, if your point is that it is cleaner to write 8.6% gain as opposed to 1.086x, then I certainly agree as well. But concept-wise the same.
Are you autistic or just acting like one
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