SBC modelling - BSO should go up right?
Sorry for a question with a potential yes/no answer (or maybe that's good who knows).
Every example online seems to show SBC just hitting paid-in capital. I don't understand why.
If a stock decides instead of paying cash to incentivise management they're going to give shares then why don't you just divide the $ SBC by the share count and add that many new shares to the shares outstanding in your model?
Trying to work out how to model in a 3 statement.
For avoidance of doubt this is for public company - not an LBO or take private scenario
Most answers to the question of how to model SBC's impact dive into ledger examples and then talk about how paid in capital changes and all sorts of stuff.
I want to model it purely for the purpose of seeing what it does to my return if i buy a stock. In my head, i think that if instead of paying execs in cash, i give them shares, that means I should just divide the cash comp figure by my share price and then add that share count to my
The diluted shares outstanding increase due to stock-based comp like you explained the number goes up - assuming everything else constant - by dividing the projected comp by assumed share price every year. So it hits the paid-in capital and increases the dil. shares outstanding.
Doesn't the SBC generally come with some restrictions on being able to sell it immediately in the secondary market?
It's like you have to hold on to those shares for certain years for incentive purposes. So, perhaps - I could be wrong - the basic shares outstanding might not necessarily increase. But I am pretty sure diluted shares increase by your logic.
Thank you
Glad I could help. I am currently interviewing for FT so it was a good thought exercise for me too.
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