Seniority of Different Lien Bonds Versus Different Lien Bank Loans

I am just learning about debt investing and I ran across a company the other day which has both 1L and 2L bank loans, but also has 1L Senior Secured Bonds. Am I correct in assuming that even thought the 2L bank debt is 2nd lien - because it is bank debt - it is still senior to the 1L Senior Secured Bonds because Bank loans are higher in payment rank than bonds in general?

I know there are exceptions when different debt facilities are covered and secured by different specific groups of assets (which is dictated by covenants), but I am just looking to figure out if I am thinking about this correctly in general.

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