5 Comments
 

but that's assuming the risk of equities stays the same. You're assuming since its backwards looking it wouldn't change? My intuition is that spread stays constant. Say if interest rates were suddenly 10% and that was considered "risk-free" surely equity investors would demand the same spread - it's not like it would become 0% (assuming equity return was originally 10%) since there is risk there. Thoughts?

 

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