IRR of an endless schedule of cash flows versus terminal value

I'm too old and haven't thought about this stuff in a while, so...

If I create a really long schedule of a cash flows, where cash flows grow 2% a year, I get an IRR of 11.3%.

If I take the first five years of the same schedule, then calculate a perpetuity off that (2% perp growth rate, 10% discount rate), I get an IRR of 15.9%

I was expecting the IRR to be the same, since I was just replacing a really long schedule of cash flows with a terminal value that is supposed to represent the same.

What am I missing?

image-20240116181258-1

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