hey guys,
I have a short question on the idea of LTM. In precedent transactions the financial data is used on a LTM basis, but in comps not. Why is that so? For my understanding LTM should be used in both valuations because we want to see how the company operated over an entire year. But Rosenbaum says in his book that LTM is used specifically for precedent transactions.
Thanks! =)
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For trading comps people tend to look at multiples based on projected sales/ebitda etc a couple of years out so you still use "yearly" data. I guess for past transactions it's not as straightforward to pull out what the former expectations were at the time of the transaction. Perhaps there were none because the target was private. I'm not sure that's the actual reason though
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