LBO Modeling Test qs
Hey guys some quick questions:
How do u guys deal with management options? Do u guys use the WSO method of finding cash from management first and then cash to management? Or do you guys just do management options % * (exit equity - entry sponsor equity)? I think the WSO method is “more correct” but the difference is super marginal … not sure what is accepted practice.
How do u guys deal with miscellaneous charges in forecast period? So like if I have a restructuring charge in year 2, do u guys tax adjust that (ie put the charge in the IS) and / or just put another line item in the adjustment from NI to FCF? For example, if I have $100 restructuring charge in year 2, do I not put that in my IS and just subtract 100 from NI when making adjustments to FCF? Tbh not sure about this one cause on one hand it should be a cash expense but now I’m getting a tax benefit? Do I create some random liability on BS to make it all balance? Really unsure about this one haha
Term loans with maturity. So I came across a case in which we take $100 of term loan with 5 year maturity. It doesn’t say any mandatory amortisation but do I assume that we pay 20 out each year?
Thank you!
1) There is some cash inflow to the company when mgmt pays for options, so you do need to add that to the bridge and then calc mgmt $ stake and dilution for other shareholders according to the rachets defined
2) I would include any one off charges in I/S as usual. If they are cash costs then no need to reverse anything in CFS. Just reflect that as well in the OpCF (or if you start from NI then it will be already reflected)
3) if there's no amort then you could add a sweep (if allowed on the docs). Then you can pay a bullet payment at maturity or more realistically just refi at year 5
Thanks all good points. But how do these one time charges to other ppl flow through the statements? Suppose I have an extra charge of $10 pre tax; at 40% tax rate, my NI is down $6. No changes to be made on the CFS. So cash is down by $6 and so Assets are down by $6; equity is down by $6, so it all balances.
However, if the case study says we had to pay $10, we are now only $6? Is that because we effectively lower our taxes so we only pay net $6?
Sorry if this is a silly question, but just want to make sure I put this stuff in the right place lol
Not sure I understand the Q but any I/S charge (cash or non cash) above the tax line reduces your tax bill. A cash charge will reduce NI and hence cash at and of period and RE. A non cash charge will do the same but there will be one more B/S line item to be increased / decreased in order to balance.
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