Hold/Sell Analysis? - AM Analyst Interview Question

Hi All,

Currently working in brokerage and have just started working through Adventures in CRE's accelerator program. Looking to jump to the principal side, particularly AM, but not in a hurry.

Out of the blue had a recruiter reach out and put an opportunity in front of me. It's an AM Analyst role for a REPE firm with ~$500mm in assets (primarily in one asset type, some exposure to office) currently under management, had another significant raise this last summer.

According to the recruiter and HR directly for the firm, they're not looking to have this analyst hit the ground running (i.e. apparently there's some runway for one to pick up the modeling portion and learn directly under the AM's). The last question sent over as apart of their screening has me questioning that, but anyway. To the question:

"The acquisitions team is underwriting a new asset and wants your input on the disposition year and strategy. Please review the attached underwriting (“Ref. - Work Sample Underwriting”) and walk us through how you would decide when is the right time to dispose of the asset (month and year). Feel free to research any terms/acronyms you don’t understand."

I'm at a loss here as I've JUST started the DCF portion of the ACRE Accelerator. I think the task is essentially a hold/sell analysis, which I can't perform currently, and of course further advising on the month/year which I really can't perform. After the recruiter emailed this they also left a voicemail stating to complete what you can to the best of your ability.

Any help on how to answer this from a high level at bare minimum? I've got the rent roll and proforma/cashflows. Again, from what I've been told it seems like it's okay to not model this out. Whoever gets this job probably will have built a model, but fuck it, I'd like to give it a shot.

Thanks for any help here.

 
Most Helpful

Timing of sale is most often guided by

1) the debt - I.e wait to sell until the prepayment penalty is tolerable or a debt assumption is attractive 

2) the capex - I.e wait to sell until the most accretive capital improvements are finished / the business plan has been executed 

3) the market - I.e sell when the outlook on the market becomes less favorable, such as projected lower rent growth or rising cap rates 

If the assumptions they gave you shows a convergence of 2 or all 3 of these factors around a specific date, that would be a good answer to go with 

 

Thanks for the in depth walkthrough. Unfortunately the answers here were later than when I needed to submit, will hear back this week.

Current firm is trying to build out the capital markets team in my market and I’m getting pushed that route, so if this doesn’t work out I’m still optimistic.

This REPE firm is a pretty rare opportunity, at least for some state school bum such as myself, so glad I took the shot with the recruiter, and thank you again for the help.

If I do get moved on to the in person portion, will likely have more questions. Will keep on the books irrespective

 

I’ll also add, assuming this is a monthly model: roll it up to annual leveraged net cash flows and check the IRR and Equity Multiple for a hold for 1 year, 2 years, 3 years, 4 years, 5 years, etc. until a 10 year hold. This will show you where the IRR peaks and than begins declining. This is a good start to say, I should hold until the IRR is the highest, and than sell. Now, zoom out to 30,000 feet and think about the deal. If you sell in this specific year, will there be large capex items or lease payments (TI/LC) in the following year? If so, does it make sense to potentially hold the asset 1 or 2 more years to work through the capex item or TI/LC? Alternatively, you could offer the seller a ‘credit.’ So if the following year TI/LC is $3MM, and the sale price of the asset would be $100MM in the year you want to sell it, the sale price would be $97MM due to the credit. Now go see how this effects IRR compared to holding 1-2 more years. 

 

For this instance, while Ricky Sargulesh's comment is accurate, I would probably see more value (for a modelling test, at least) in throwing a 10-yr data point of the IRR / MOIC at various exit years, which will allow you to see how the sale is impacted under instances w/ long lease term still in effect vs. at the end of lease term right before capital or deferred maintenance needs to be spent - or, moreso importantly to see if the value you get from rolling upcoming vacant space to market offsets the value in selling before taking any of this into account well before a lease expires.  All important metrics to be mindful of.

I would also say while doing these analyses' it is important to have a 'next buyer' mindset in mind, and look at see where the realistic entry point your buyer will come in at to accurately predict if your sale values are reasonable in certain years.  For example, the above methodology is only useful if you think you can obtain the desired sale prices you used for inputs in those analysis...if the 'next buyer analysis' shows the new buyer will be getting a 0.5% IRR over 5-7 yr hold on your sale price, then obviously you need to re-adjust those assumptions if there isn't some specific type of buyer you are holding out for - also, obviously take into account the cash on cash, etc. for REITs/longer term holders if the asset will yield that interest.

This may be overkill for an interview..but I think this is more along the lines of how a dedicated AM professional would look at a situation like this.

 

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