Financial advisor comp structure - wirehouses vs. banks

Can someone walk me through a typical compensation structure for a lead financial advisor at a wirehouse and, separately, at a private bank (e.g., JP Morgan, Goldman)? Please assume same book of business at each and a "typical" profile for an advisor managing an UHNWI book. Know PBs pay out less but trying to understand the structure in detail. Thanks! 

7 Comments
 

annef4491, bummer your thread hasn't had a response yet. Maybe one of these threads could point you in the right direction:

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Fingers crossed that one of those helps you.

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I'm at an RIA, but from what I know, PB is more salary focused and wirehouses are going to be based on a revenue payout (think 40%+/-).

PB - more cross-selling/ relationship management. Client belongs to the bank more so than the advisor.

Wire - eat what you kill, some cross-selling incentives. Clients are typically sticky to the advisor and less so to the firm (hence wirehouse advisors moving their books). Plenty of others on this board that know more of the details.

 

can speak to the BB's that are still charging commissions and fees (think bear sterns/jpms/jpwa) 

You'll take 60-40% of what you sell. Most products trend downwards, so fee based products you're taking ~40% of the revenue. On preferreds and certain one off deals you'll be able to make the full 60%. 

At RIA's and smaller shops, I've heard you can take home as much as 95% of the rev, because overhead is pretty minimal. 

At PB's you're looking at base+bonus. Its less about driving revenue in the fundamental sense, and more about relationship management. You'll obviously still be selling and growing a book, but If you make a few billion dollar trades you're looking at WAY less money than normal brokers. 

 

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