12 Comments
 

Interest expense is subtracted from gross profit on the income statement. So an increase in interest expense of X dollars, reduces net income by X(1-T). Which reduces cash from operations by X(1-T). This reduces cash on the balance sheet by X(1-T) and reduces retained earnings by X(1-T) which makes the balance sheet balance... correct?

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I am trying to solve it in an old-fashioned way.

The accounting entry when I pay Interest Expense (IE) let's say 10 dollars is:

Interest Expense (+E, -SE) 10 Cash(-A) 10

How come and cash goes down by 6 and not by 10? What is wrong in my thinking? Any help appreciated!

 

let's start with income statement and not complicate things with capitalized financing costs.

I pay $10 interest. assume 40% tax rate. Net income goes down by $6. This flows through into your CF statement, so cash flow and cash on balance sheet decreases by $6 - think of this as the tax authorities literally mailing you a $4 cheque after you paid $10. At the same time, net income comes out of retained earnings so retained earnings are $6 lower as well.

 
mrb87let's start with income statement and not complicate things with capitalized financing costs.

I pay $10 interest. assume 40% tax rate. Net income goes down by $6. This flows through into your CF statement, so cash flow and cash on balance sheet decreases by $6 - think of this as the tax authorities literally mailing you a $4 cheque after you paid $10. At the same time, net income comes out of retained earnings so retained earnings are $6 lower as well.

Thanks for this reponse! I am still confused. I understand the flow in Net Income Statement and Cash flow from operating activities. But: What you mentioned "the tax authorities literally mailing you a $4 check" does that mean that I have decrease in cash by 10 and an increased Deferred Tax Asset by $4?

Did I confuse things more? (I cannot figure out the intuitive meaning of your statement "mailing a $4 check" how much do I actually pay the tax authorities? 6 or 10?)

Thanks!

 
Best Response
pithikos
mrb87let's start with income statement and not complicate things with capitalized financing costs.

I pay $10 interest. assume 40% tax rate. Net income goes down by $6. This flows through into your CF statement, so cash flow and cash on balance sheet decreases by $6 - think of this as the tax authorities literally mailing you a $4 cheque after you paid $10. At the same time, net income comes out of retained earnings so retained earnings are $6 lower as well.

Thanks for this reponse! I am still confused. I understand the flow in Net Income Statement and Cash flow from operating activities. But: What you mentioned "the tax authorities literally mailing you a $4 check" does that mean that I have decrease in cash by 10 and an increased Deferred Tax Asset by $4?

Did I confuse things more? (I cannot figure out the intuitive meaning of your statement "mailing a $4 check" how much do I actually pay the tax authorities? 6 or 10?)

Thanks!

i couldn't make it more clearer. you paid $10, you got $4 back, so your cash is only down $6. deferred tax assets aren't created by ups delivery times; you're overthinking it

 

Your earnings before tax (EBT) is down 10 Your net income only goes down 6 because of 40% tax rate.

Real life example: You sell a stock at a loss. If you sell it at a loss and have nothing else to say about it, you can write down that loss.

So if you and me decided to build a business together and fucked it all up losing $10.... The Gov't would allow us to use this as a tax impact, so "they send us a check". What he really means is your "tax liability goes down by $4"

Now for your last question how much do you pay tax authorities.

If you MADE money then sure you're just paying $X times 40% on your EBT earnings. Now if you LOST money you're not paying squat and you pick up "NOLs" which is a whole different topic.

Ya dig?

 

The balance sheet looks like this.

Your Net income swims to retained earnings.

A = L + E

Cash is an asset it goes down by -6. Liabilities no change Retained earnings is part of shareholder equity so it goes down by -6. because Net income swims to RE.

Balance sheet balances. (Does homosexual happy dance when model balances back when he was a lowly 1st year analyst coked out of his mind)

Solved?

 

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