LBO CASH FREE DEBT FREE QUESTION

If it’s cash free debt free but there’s debt on the last fiscal year BS, how does this work? Net debt is 0 in the equity value calculation but if you just zero the debt on the balance sheet the PF balance sheet doesn’t balance, but refinancing the debt in sources and uses would make it not cash free debt free. Can someone explain whether the existing debt balance is cleared or just ignored, and how to PF the balance sheet in cash free debt free scenario when there’s debt on the balance sheet? Thank you!

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If there's debt but net debt is 0 then cash and cash-like accounts are equivalent to the debt-like accounts, so you should include both the debt and the cash in the sources and uses but they'll cancel out. In an acquisition / the PF BS, the debt should be paid off with the new capital structure taking over.

 
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I don’t think this addresses it, as net debt is not zero due to debt and cash accounts netting out, but rather is zero implicitly by nature of the deal being “cash free debt free”. So given CFDF -> Cash and Debt is equal to 0 so EQV = EV and in the S&Us cash on BS is 0 and debt refinance is 0. Again this is implicit with the assumption of CFDF, I.e., has nothing to do with the actual closing BS cash or debt accounts. Given this, how do you clear the cash and debt accounts on the BS correctly? I presume they are just ignored but this seems a bit negligent.

 
Given thi

s, how do you clear the cash and debt accounts on the BS correctly? I presume they are just ignored but this seems a bit negligent.

Not 100% I fully get the situation OP is stating, but I think it goes in this direction. CFDF is stated as basis for the deal. In an additional step, beyond plainly using CFDF for the basis, it is not unusual for the acquirer to bring it's own creditors relationships over and doesn't need/want to continue existing (or lending banks do not want to share book with old lenders, or old lenders are not satisfied with acquirer/structure). This debt gets repaid to old creditors and cash is dividend out. Not a super efficient, as there may be penalties/fees and taxes, but I have done it before.

 

Actually it’s just that’s equity purchase price changes to enterprise purchase price and cash from B/S is not a source.

 

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