WACC - Rate of return

Hi guys,

I haven't done Valuations for a while and I'm currently trying to understand it again. Hope you can help me:

Let's assume a company has an EBIT of 1,000,000 and we acquire it at 4x EBIT --> 4,000,000

What's the rate of return?

I would first calculate the cost of equity (2,000,000) and cost of debt (2,000,000)

EBIT: 1,000,000 Multiple: 4x Value: 4,000,000

EBIT/EV = 25%

Equity: 2,000,000 Debt: 2,000,000

Cost of Debt: 5% = 100,000 Cost of Equity: risk free rate (3%) + market risk premium (4%) x beta (0,87) = 6,09% = 121,800

WACC: DEBT/Total Capital x cost of debt + equity/total capital x cost of equity

WACC: 2,000,000 / 4,000,000 x 5% + 2,000,000 / 4,000,000 x 6,09%

0,025 + 0,03 = 0,55 = 5,545%

4,000,000 x 5,545 % = 221, 800

Therefor our EBT is 1,000,000 - 221,800 = 778, 200

EBT/ Total Capital = 19,45%

Is that all correct? Thanks !

5 Comments
 

you didn't tax effect the debt in your WACC calc.

wacc is:

d/total x cost of debt x (1-taxrate) + e/total x capm(cost of eq),,,,,,,,, assuming no preferred.

-- "Those who say don't know, and those who know don't say."
 
Best Response

A quick corpfin course ... (It's the only useful stuff in learned in college, and i actually really learned it during my internships) WACC: Kd(1-T)D/A + KeE/A WACC: 4.865% (Assuming a 35% Tax Rate and that your Beta is already levered otherwise lever it with LBeta = UBeta(1+(1-T)*D/E) (Btw, WACC assumes an unlevered FCF(It means no Interest payments) and returns the Enterprise Value) EV - Net Debt = Equity Value Net Debt = Debt - Cash (Bonus track: Firm Value FV = EV + Cash)

Back to your problem EBIT - I = EBT (The resulting FCF has to be discounted with the cost of Equity: Ke) I = Kd*Debt = 100,000 EBT =900,000 why did you use the CAPM for this? EBT/ASSETS = 22.50% (Capital may refer to many things, but mostly it is a portion of Equity) EBT/EQUITY = 11.25%

 

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