How Does PPA of Negative Goodwill Work?
Say you're looking to buy shitco with the following characteristics:
- Pre-Trans BV of shareholders' equity: $250
- Pre-Trans goodwill: $50
- Equity Purchase Value: $100
- Sponsor Equity: $50
- No trans exp
Would the PPA adjustments look like this?
- Goodwill (Asset): Credit 50 (Pro Forma Balance: 0)
- Negative Goodwill (Liability): Credit 100 (Pro Forma Balance: 100)
- Shareholders' Equity: Debit $250, then Credit $50 (Pro Forma Balance: 50)
Also, if there was an assumed % of step-up amortization, would it create a deferred tax asset?
Based on the most helpful WSO content, here's how the PPA (Purchase Price Allocation) of negative goodwill works and how it would apply to your scenario:
Breakdown of PPA Adjustments:
Goodwill (Asset):
Negative Goodwill (Liability):
Shareholders' Equity:
Deferred Tax Asset (DTA) from Step-Up Amortization:
For example: - If the step-up amortization is $100 and the tax rate is 30%, the DTA created would be: $$DTA = Step-Up Amortization \times Tax Rate = 100 \times 0.30 = 30.$$
This DTA would be recorded on the balance sheet as an asset, offsetting some of the tax liabilities or providing future tax benefits.
Let me know if you'd like further clarification!
Sources: A company uses $50 of cash to buy PP&E, how does the EV change?, Goodwill Question, Write Down of PPE by 100, M&A Question Asked by PJT London, Difficult Accounting Technical - IBD
There’s no such thing as negative goodwill, the $100 delta between the pre deal net assets of $200 (250-50) and the $100 purchase price is recognized as a bargain purchase gain that’s flows the the P&L and then to equity
Thanks for the response. So to affirm, would that mean goodwill will still be written down to 0, but instead of the negative goodwill account shareholders equity would go up by $100 due to the gain?
PF Goodwill: $0
PF Shareholder’s Equity: 150 (sponsor equity + bargain price gain)
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