LBO - Model Test - Questions
Hi,
Have a few LBO modelling tests coming up and have been preparing in advance.
One area that I am confused about is Preference Shares / Loan Notes. All of the model guides that I have seen all assume that the PEH invests only in ordinary shares (i.e. their return is just closing equity / opening equity). Is there a reason for this? From what I understand, in practice almost all deals are structured so the PEH has a preferred return using pref shares / loan notes. Should I be modelling this out in any case studies that I do, or is it over complicating it?
Secondly, this is a bit basic but I am confused with how ownership works with preferences shares / loan notes. Are preference shares / loan notes the same thing? Do they count towards my ownership % on exit?
E.g. If I have a 1,000 equity value on entry financed 900 PEH loan note, 50 ordinary PEH, 50 ordinary management. What is my ownership % on exit? Is it 50% or 95%?
Really appreciate any tips. Thanks.
Bump
Bump, curious too, this a good question
Bump
From European Perspective:
- PEH (or SHL) grows by PIK (e.g. 10% p.a.), at the end at exit this 100% goes to the Sponsor
- After deduction of SHL from the "total equity value" (meaning exit multiple x EBITDA - net debt); Common equity is left. This is dividend according to initial investments into the common equity of the Sources & Uses. If split was 50:50; then 50 to management, 50 to Sponsor.
Thanks. Super helpful. A couple of follow up qs:
(I) how is the common equity split determined? I.e. if on entry it is 900 SHL, 50 PEH Ords, 50 Mgmt Ords, that seems like a very unfair split on PEH (contributing 95%, but only getting 50% of equity upside)? Does it get adjusted to take this into account? I.e. SHL 900, PEH 90 Ords, Mgmt 10 Ords? - This still gives Mgmt an outsized equity amount for their investment (even ignoring any sweet equity / MIP)
(II) How should this be presented in an LBO test? As I said, all the materials I have reviewed have assumed PEH invests only in Ordinary equity. Is there a reason for that? Is it expected to model out the SHL in an LBO case study?
Thanks!
Welcome!
(I) It depends on a reasonable amount that management can afford right? Usually, what I have seen, 85% SHL, 15% CE, 80/20 split Sponsor and Mgmt; which results in a couple of million for management (reasonable amount to rollover)
(II) I have, with one exception (US MF in Continental Europe), not seen modeling test incorporating these features; but rather just doing common equity; also due to timing reasons in a 1-2 h test. Would only model this in if explicitly asked - not a real value add but the potential to f*** up in a timed scenario.
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