Feb 22, 2024
10 Comments
 
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Company has $10M EBITDA, is worth 10x, and is raising 6x leverage via 4x ($40M) 1L and 2x ($20M). You’re looking at investing in the 2L. You’re attaching at 4x (since the debt senior to you is through 4x), and detaching at 6x (4x + your 2x). LTV in this scenario is 6x total leverage / 10x TEV ($10M EBITDA * 10x valuation) = 60%

Higher LTV = higher risk because there is less cushion. In the above example, if you were invested through 9x leverage / $90M (detach) on the 10x business (90% LTV), and that $10M EBITDA drops to $8M and the business is still worth 10x ($80M TEV), you’re now levered through enterprise value. In the $60M case where your detach is 6x / 60% LTV, you’re still covered if the biz is worth $80M.

 
[Comment removed by mod team]
 

but in this case the LTV is against the EV valuation. I think sometimes diff ppl uses the terms with respect to % of collateral the borrower is lending against. Correct me if I'm wrong - this is a slightly different use of LTV concept?

 

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